Argument 1:
"The priestly and
royal offices don't always appear so categorically distinct
among descriptions preserved by Hebrew Bible, for instance:
"Moses and Aaron among his priests…"
(Psa 99:6 KJV)
"And he [=Moses] was king in Jeshurun…"
(Deu 33:5 KJV)
So we see that Moses could serve as a King and as a Priest, so could David and so will the Messiah.
Answer 1:
It is true Moses was ministering as a high/priest, but
it seems it was until he completed the tabernacle and until the end of the
"eight days of consecration". At that time Aaron and his sons were
anointed (Ex.28:41,29:7,40:13) and dressed (Ex. 28-29:9,40:13-15) etc.. to work
as priests from henceforth even for ever. As for Moses and Aaron
roles were separated :
"The sons of Amram; Aaron and Moses: and Aaron
was separated, that he should sanctify the most holy things, he and his
sons for ever, to burn incense before the LORD, to minister unto him,
and to bless in his name for ever. Now concerning Moses the man of God, his
sons were named of the tribe of Levi (1Ch
23:13-14 KJV)
"…and the priest's office shall be theirs
for a perpetual statute" (Exo 29:9 KJV)
"…that they may minister unto me in the
priest's office: for their anointing shall surely be an everlasting priesthood
throughout their generations." (Exo 40:15 KJV)
"And did I
choose him [=Aaron] out of all the tribes of Israel to be my priest..."
(1Sa 2:28 KJV)
To be a memorial unto the
children of Israel, that no stranger, which is not of the seed of
Aaron, come near to offer incense before the LORD; that he be not as Korah,
and as his company: as the LORD said to him by the hand of Moses. (Num 16:40 KJV)
And he shall have it,
and his seed after him, even the covenant of an everlasting
priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for
the children of Israel. (Num 25:13 KJV)
"For thus says
the LORD, 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the
house of Israel; nor shall the priests of Levi ever be lacking before me,
to sacrifice burnt offerings, to burn cereal offerings, and to make sacrifices.
(Jer 33:17-8 NAS)
Thus says the LORD:
If you can break my covenant with day and my covenant with night so that day
and night no longer appear in their proper time, (Jer 33:20 NAB)
only then can my covenant with my servant David be broken, so that
he will not have a descendant to act as king upon his throne, and my covenant with the priests of Levi who minister to me.
(Jer 33:21 NAB)
Just as the host of
heaven cannot be numbered and the sands of the sea cannot be counted, so I will
multiply the descendants of David my servant and the Levites who minister to
me. (Jer 33:22 NAB)
Have you not noticed
what these people are saying: "The LORD has rejected the two tribes he
had chosen?..." (Jer 33:24 NAB)
In summery Aaron and his seed only -have an eternal covenant of priesthood from God . there is no way David or his seed will be a priests, God will not brake his word and the law will not change. So if we find scripture that appears at first glance to support that David or any other man not from the seed of Aaron was a "priest" we should apply the other true meaning of "Kohen/Priest" = "Ruler". otherwise we will contradict and abolish Gods clear Words.
Argument 2:
1 Sam. 21:7 notes that David was given
consecrated bread reserved only for the priests.
Answer 2:
According to rabbinic understanding of the
text:
A.
It was a time of an emergency for David so he took the showbread. and according to the law u can break a law to save ones life. (Talmud Menachot 96b)
B.
It wasn't "showbread" that was given to david,
but other holy bread (bread
from thanksgiving sacrifice) that strangers/aliens also can eat too. (Radak)
It seems also Yeshua understood it was a time of emergency like the
sages:
Mark 2:23-28: ESV:
"And
he said to them, “Have you never read what David did, when he was in
need and was hungry, he and those who were with him: how he entered the
house of God, in the time of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the bread of the
Presence, which it is not lawful for any but the priests to eat, and also gave
it to those who were with him…"
Notice even if we say David was a priest and could eat the "showbread" - how on earth could he give the showbread to the alleged "those who were with him" were they all priests like him? The answer that follows is they were in need. (and btw it wasnt "Abiathar" it was Ahimelech")
Argument
3:
2 Sam. 6:12-14 and some other
ref. about David making sacrifices, therefore he was also a priest.
Answer 3:
It is to be understood that a Priest was making a sacrifice for behalf of David, not that he we making himself the sacrifice and serving as a priest. otherwise we would have to say the other figures in the bible were also priests because the text doesnt mention the priest that acctually made the sacrifice:
Was
Gideon also a priest? (Judges 6:26)
Was
Jephtach also a priest? (Judges 11:31)
Was
Manoach also a priest? (Judges 13:23)
Was
Samuel also a priest? (1 Sam 7:9)
Job
(chp 1) or Job friends? (Job 42:8) were priests?
saul (1 sam 13:9-12)
ט וַיֹּאמֶר שָׁאוּל--הַגִּשׁוּ אֵלַי, הָעֹלָה וְהַשְּׁלָמִים; וַיַּעַל, הָעֹלָה. י וַיְהִי, כְּכַלֹּתוֹ לְהַעֲלוֹת הָעֹלָה, וְהִנֵּה שְׁמוּאֵל, בָּא; וַיֵּצֵא שָׁאוּל לִקְרָאתוֹ, לְבָרְכוֹ. יא וַיֹּאמֶר שְׁמוּאֵל, מֶה עָשִׂיתָ; וַיֹּאמֶר שָׁאוּל כִּי-רָאִיתִי כִי-נָפַץ הָעָם מֵעָלַי, וְאַתָּה לֹא-בָאתָ לְמוֹעֵד הַיָּמִים, וּפְלִשְׁתִּים, נֶאֱסָפִים מִכְמָשׂ. יב וָאֹמַר, עַתָּה יֵרְדוּ פְלִשְׁתִּים אֵלַי הַגִּלְגָּל, וּפְנֵי יְהוָה, לֹא חִלִּיתִי; וָאֶתְאַפַּק, וָאַעֲלֶה הָעֹלָה.
saul (1 sam 13:9-12)
ט וַיֹּאמֶר שָׁאוּל--הַגִּשׁוּ אֵלַי, הָעֹלָה וְהַשְּׁלָמִים; וַיַּעַל, הָעֹלָה. י וַיְהִי, כְּכַלֹּתוֹ לְהַעֲלוֹת הָעֹלָה, וְהִנֵּה שְׁמוּאֵל, בָּא; וַיֵּצֵא שָׁאוּל לִקְרָאתוֹ, לְבָרְכוֹ. יא וַיֹּאמֶר שְׁמוּאֵל, מֶה עָשִׂיתָ; וַיֹּאמֶר שָׁאוּל כִּי-רָאִיתִי כִי-נָפַץ הָעָם מֵעָלַי, וְאַתָּה לֹא-בָאתָ לְמוֹעֵד הַיָּמִים, וּפְלִשְׁתִּים, נֶאֱסָפִים מִכְמָשׂ. יב וָאֹמַר, עַתָּה יֵרְדוּ פְלִשְׁתִּים אֵלַי הַגִּלְגָּל, וּפְנֵי יְהוָה, לֹא חִלִּיתִי; וָאֶתְאַפַּק, וָאַעֲלֶה הָעֹלָה.
Argument 4:
David's sons are called
"Kohanim/Priests" in 2 Sam 8:18.
Answer 4:
David
sons were not literally priests. There is another meaning to the word Kohanim כהנים in the Hebrew language– that is "Rulers": please check
and compare scripture 2 Sam 8:18 and 1 Ch 18:18 !!
It
appears that כהנים are ראשנים , in other words "rulers" of
some kind not priests. also the greek translation LXX:
αὐλάρχαι (2Sam 8:18) = "rulers", and KJV
follows this.
compare the text:
and Benaiah the son
of Jehoiada was over the Cherethites and the Pelethites, and David's sons were priests.(כהנים)
(2Sa 8:18 ESV)
and Benaiah the son
of Jehoiada was over the Cherethites and the Pelethites; and David's sons were
the chief officials (הראשנים) in the service of the king. (1Ch 18:17 ESV)
another example:
And Ira also the
Jairite was a chief ruler (כהן) about David. (2 Sam 20:26 KJV)
ἱερεὺς (2 Sam 20:26 LXX) = "priest"
another example:
And Azariah the son
of Nathan was over the officers: and Zabud the son of Nathan was principal
officer, and the king's friend: (1Kings 4:5 KJV)
Argument 5:
David/Messiah was promised that he will be a Priest forever (Pslams 110:4)
Answer 5:
As demonstrated before the word "Kohen" - can mean in the Hebrew language a "priest" or a "ruler".
the book of Samuel and Chronicles say nothing about an oath and promise from God to David to be a priest forever. We only find that the Lord swore to David and his seed to be Kings forever. So as I will show it fits clearly and perfectly to render "you are a Kohen-Ruler forever" rather then "a priest forever" using the Text only:
The LORD hath sworn
(Psa 110:4 KJV) ===== "...as the
LORD hath sworn to David, even so I
do to him; (2Sam 3:9 KJV)
"and will not
repent" (Psa 110:4 KJV) ====== "nor repent" (1Sa 15:29 KJV)
Thou art a priest
for ever (Psa 110:4 KJV) ===== unto David, and to his seed for ever.
(2Sa 22:51 KJV) / "He has made an eternal covenant with me" (2Sa 23:5 NAB)
"after the order
of Melchizedek." (Psa 110:4 KJV) -
after the order of the line of Jerusalem KINGS –
Malkizedek/Adonizedek…
David was set to be a king over Jerusalem like them and
after them.
The
kings of Jerusalem are called: "melchi-Zedek"/
"adoni-Zedek" (king/master of zedek) (Genesis 14:18 , Joshua 10:1)
Like all the kings of Philistines were called
"Abimelech" (Gen. 20:2 , Pslams 34:1)
and
all of Egypt kings were called ""Pharaoh". (Gen. 12:15 , Exo.
1:22 etc..)
Argument 6:
The Messiah Jesus was called and he is the "BRANCH". and the Branch will be a priest as follows:
"Even
he shall build the temple of the LORD; and he shall bear the glory, and shall
sit and rule upon his throne; and he shall be a priest upon his throne:
and the counsel of peace shall be between them both. (Zec 6:13 KJV)
Answer 6:
It is matter of how you translate the text. the words in stake is "al kiso" - which means "on his right hand of his throne" (next to him). in context Joshua the high priest will sit on the right hand of Zerubabels throne.
thats exactly how the LXX translated this:
καὶ ἔσται ὁ ἱερεὺς ἐκ δεξιῶν (Zec 6:13 LXX) δεξιῶν = right
And
he shall receive power, and shall sit and rule upon his throne; and there
shall be a priest on HIS right hand, and a peaceable counsel shall be
between them both. (Zec 6:13 LXA) – English translation to the LXX
So again:
והיה כהן על כסאו
= and a priest shall be before his throne, = before the throne of Zerubabel
See
the word על has
few meaning , one is: "before/next" (see Exo 14:2)
Also
notice it is not written כהן על כסאו והוא, but כהן על כסאווהיה
Now u may ask, how can it be that the one who sits on the THRONE is Zerubbabel , "throne" is for Kings only right? and Zerubbabel was only a governor not king?
The answer is: also Governors in the bible sit on a throne (כסא)
Zerubbabel
the son of Shealtiel, governor (פחת)
of Judah (Hag 1:1 KJV)
and
you see that "governor" also sits on a "throne":
unto
the throne (כסא) of the governor
(פחת) on this side the river. (Neh 3:7 KJV) see
also (Ester 3:1)
and finally the end of the verse: "and the counsel of peace shall be between
them BOTH" its speaking about two individuals Joshua and Zerubbabel
between THEM is gonna be peace and not jealousy. So this verse is not speaking
about one men, and Joshua/Jesus Is NOT the BRANCH -rather it is Zerubbabel.
And I will raise me
up a faithful priest, that shall do according to that which
is in mine heart and in my mind: and I will build him a sure house; and he shall WALK BEFORE mine anointed
for ever. (1Sa 2:35 KJV)
This
is a prophecy about how Aviatar the priest from the cursed seed of Eli (line of
Itamar) is going to be removed, and Zadok the priest (from the
line of Elezar) is gonna be established as a high priest that shall walk before
the anointed = the king = Solomon, "walk before" והתהלך לפני is similar to "priest shall be before
his throne" (with Joshua and Zerubabel)…and it was fulfilled:
Argument 7:
David was wearing an"Efod" a priest cloth/item - indicating he was a priest.
Answer 7:
There
are all kinds of cloths and hats in the Hebrew bible, some are mentioned only
in a connection to the priests and some are not. In
other words if you read about cloths/items mentioned that were worn by priests u may think only the priests wear it. But
the matter of fact u find that also none priests do.
Like:
אבנט and כתנת (Isaiah 22:20-21, 2sam
15:32) ,
מעיל (1 sam. 18:4, 1 sam. 24:4)
פאר (Ezekiel 24:23 compare to
Ezekiel 44:18) also see: Isa 61:10
so it is not surprising to see if a
person wears "efod" it is a "regular efod". Not a holy
"priestly efod"…
So
in summery - david and Samuel did not
wear the אפוד/מעיל reserved to the priests, they wore a regular efod or something
similar. לא כתוב ש"נשאו אפוד" אלא חגרו אפוד שלא כמו הכהנים שנשאו אפוד
Also
if David was a priest why did he have to have a high priest next to him to ask the Lord through the Urim and
Tumim? If he had Efod/Hoshen and other cloth items of a priest?
And he shall stand before Eleazar the priest, who shall inquire for him by the judgment of the Urim before the LORD (Num 27:21)
And Saul said to him,
"Why have you conspired against me, you and the son of Jesse, in that you
have given him bread and a sword and have inquired of God for him, so
that he has risen against me, to lie in wait, as at this day?" (1Sa 22:13)
Is today the first
time that I have inquired of God for him? No! Let not the king impute anything to his
servant or to all the house of my father, for your servant has known nothing of
all this, much or little." (1Sa 22:15)
